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25 new of 206 responses total.
polygon
response 172 of 206: Mark Unseen   Sep 26 01:41 UTC 2000

> Tell ya what, polygon. Since you're prepared to dismiss all of my
> sources and unwilling to provide anything beyond an "If I recall
> correctly...",

For crying out loud, I don't work in a law library, and I'm not interested
in always waiting to make a response until I have all kinds of reference
books handy.  I *did* look up that definition earlier, and I'm sorry that
I had to use weasel words because I didn't have it word for word in front
of me.  Now I do. 

   Larceny: Fenonious stealing, taking and carrying, leading, riding, or
   driving away another's personal property, with intent to convert it or
   to deprive owner thereof.  The unlawful taking and carrying away of
   property of another with intent to appropriate it to use inconsistent
   with the latter's rights.  Black's Law Dictionary, citing U.S. v.
   Johnson, 433 F.2nd 1160.

There's more, but it refers constantly to "carrying away" and "personal
property".

The definition of Theft, admittedly, raises the possibility that 
meaning is somewhat broader.  It starts out by calling theft "A popular
name for larceny," but follows up with numerous legal definitions similar
to the above.  It goes on to discuss things like swindling, embezzlement,
obtaining unauthorized control over property, and even "obtaining control
over property knowing the property to have been stolen by another," which
would cover my fencing example.  And after the end of the main entry,
there is a separate subheading for "theft of services," which does suggest
that the word can be used in an intangible context.

> I'll make you a deal:
> Let's stop using the word "theft" entirely, both of us. As far as I can
> tell, there's universal acceptance of "larceny" and "infringement,"
> while legal sources differ as to whether "larceny" is a synonym of
> "theft" or a subset of "theft."

Agreed.  That makes sense.  You have a deal.

I should point out that, as far as I'm concerned, "infringement" is still
a pretty heavy-duty word.  See the anecdote I posted a couple months ago
in Agora.

> So I'll take back all of my comments about "theft" if you'll stop making
> snarky comments about me being indifferent about the meanings of words
> and buying into the propaganda machine. I am suggesting a bilateral
> cessation of ad hominems in favor of mature discussion, and will
> practice a unilateral cessation.

That is also sensible.  Agreed.

> The distinction with the boat makes sense now that I think about it. The
> relevant issue, as I understand it, is that the person who takes the
> boat returns it without ever having inconvenienced the rightful owner
> (or any sgent thereof). So that's what makes it not larceny, yes?

Right -- larceny involves the intent to deprive.

> I'm not sure about the relevance of the example. It's not like
> Napsterites are planning on deleting the tracks from their HDs once
> they're done listening to them (and, in listening to them, somehow
> saving the life of a drowning child). 

Agreed here, too.

> The example was provided, I suppose, to give an example of an act of
> taking someone else's property that wasn't, properly speaking, larceny.
> Granted, then. Meant to question my claim that intent is irrelevant to
> the act of larceny (and, by extension, infringement). Not granted,
> because the element that makes taking the boat not larceny is because
> the boat is put back... if the boat were taken to save the drowning
> child, and then never returned, then (by my understanding, and polygon,
> do correct me if I'm wrong), the act is still larceny.

Technically the issue would be intent at the time of taking, but I won't
quibble.  Even if there wasn't intent at the time of taking, the decision
to keep it would presumably be the requisite intent.

> That is, is a mugger not guilty of larceny if he mugs in order to feed
> his starving children? What makes the act larceny is that there is no
> intention to return the object that's taken... and that's where "intent"
> is relevant. What I meant earlier when I said that intent is irrelevant
> to [larceny and infringement] is that the person's INTENT -- that is,
> reason -- for taking the object doesn't mitigate whether it's illegal
> (although it obviously mitigates the extent of the punishment that's
> meted out).

Right, exactly -- intent matters, but motive doesn't.

> I was in a debate on software piracy in which one person argued that he
> wasn't guilty of infringement per se when he used a technically illegal
> copy of software if he fully intended to either delete the software
> after a self- imposed trial of 30 days or pay for the software in full.
> I suppose the same argument could be made by some users of Napster, as
> well... I've had friends borrow my CDs to test drive them while they
> decide whether to buy their own copy (by my understanding, a fully legal
> act, so long as it's a legal copy). 

I'm not sure about that.  That scenario may not even be technically legal,
but I can't say for sure.

> Personally, I still feel that infringement is infringement is
> infringement, and if there's anywhere the analogy between larceny and
> infringement breaks down, it's in the direction of making infringement a
> worse crime, because if you abscond with someone's boat, you can make
> reparations later by returning the boat, but if you allow 500,000
> Napsterites to copy your Metallica MP3, it's much harder to track down
> all of those people and make them delete their copies (and many of them
> have probably already given a dozen friends copies, and so on). The only
> reparation that can be made easily is to pay royalties (which is what
> the RIAA really wants anyway, money money money). 

The only trouble with infringement being infringement being infringement
is that the law is complex and keeps changing (as does the market).  A
Napsterite downloading a Metallica song is guilty of copyright
infringement, sure, but I'm a little troubled by some of the implications. 

For example, I can go to the library and make a photocopy from a book for
my own use, take home the copy, use it to my heart's content, and that's
not infringement, it's fair use.  Indeed, I could copy an entire book,
and indeed, I have done so, and if it's for me to use at home, it's still
fair use.  If the RIAA manages to "get" Napster, might that have
implications for personal-use library photocopying?  What's the difference
between making a copy of a song from a public source, and making a copy of
a book from a public library, that one should be punishable, and the other
protected?

On the other hand, if I take just a few chapters of the same book, make
ten copies, and distribute it to my class, without permission, then I
would probably be infringing (though some argue that it makes a difference
whether someone is making a profit on the deal).  This is more or less the
case that Kinko's lost.

> Also, with the "test drive" issue (both for software and music), there
> are enough resources out there that if a company seriously wants to
> allow users to "test drive" their software or music, they will. If they
> choose not to allow that to happen, that's their moral (and currently,
> legal) right, since they came up with it in the first place.

Right, I think.  I admit that I'm not very interested in the "test drive"
issue.

> Issues like mandatory licensing and Napster go against the philosophy
> this country was founded on. Mandatory licensing, for instance, says
> that, while the creator of art should be compensated for that art, the
> art itself belongs to the culture, not the creator. That's simply not
> true.

I'm not sure I agree with that fully.  Not that I'm advocating any
mandatory anything.

> The spirit of intellectual property law (at least, before the lawyers
> mucked it up in all directions) is that the creator can decide whether
> to give the art to the culture, or to hoard it.

The pre-1976 U.S. copyright law was that if you published it, it reverted
to the public domain in either 28 or 56 years depending on whether you
renewed the copyright.  If you didn't publish it, the copyright was yours
forever.  So, sure, you could create something and hoard it, but you
couldn't publish it and then withdraw it and hold it back forever.

The new copyright law covers both published and unpublished work.  Though
at any given time, copyrights are scheduled to expire, as soon as that
date approaches for any works, WIPO and Congress extend the term of
copyrights to prevent anything from slipping into the public domain.

This is contrary to the Constitution, which gives Congress the power "To
promote the Progress of Science and useful Arts, by securing for LIMITED
TIMES (emphasis added) to Authors and Inventors the exclusive Right to
their respective Writings and Discoveries."

> While the most moral course is to release it for sufficient compensation
> to make a decent living (or for no compensation when a decent living can
> be made elsewhere), it's a personal moral choice, and as immoral as it
> may be to hoard cultural artifacts and demand excessive compensation for
> them, it's also immoral to force your own morality upon someone else by
> acting in a way that's indifferent to them.

But society makes moral judgements all the time, and enacts them into law.
Not everybody agrees.  Too bad.

I do kind of sympathize with your riff on the unrepetant Napsterites, and
I suppose it serves them right if they're arrested.  However, my contempt
for them is blunted by my view that the RIAA and its allies are advocating
(and have already successfully enacted some) subtle but far-reaching legal
changes that will be a disaster for society and the culture.  In other
words, the RIAA really is, if not literally evil, certainly bad enough
that I won't be cheering for their legal victories.
brighn
response 173 of 206: Mark Unseen   Sep 26 03:12 UTC 2000

 But society makes moral judgements all the time, and enacts them into law.
 Not everybody agrees.  Too bad.
--
Which is why I prefer to talk about ethics rather than law. Too many laws are
morally abhorrent to me. I follow them (for the most part) because I recognize
it as a cost of living in a civil society. *shrug* And because there are
enough laws in this country that *are* good, and because this country is one
of the better ones on the planet right now.

For the bit about the RIAA, I find it sad anytime one agency has so much power
in an industry that it can dictate matters of law. The movies have the MPAA,
the comics have the Code, music has the RIAA, and so on... if you're not "in"
with the governing body, you can be leveraged out of serious distribution.
And I don't question that the RIAA exploits its power... the speed of the
spread of the Tipper Sticker is anexcellent example. (I also find it sad that
every major entertainment industry has allowed the government to strong arm
it into setting up "voluntary" rating systems that are now being enforced
nearly with the force of law in increasing jurisdictions -- I understand that
it's not technically *illegal* to let a 16 year old into an R-rated movie,
but movie theaters act as if it is. (I find this especially sad because I
think voluntary ratings ARE a good idea, but only if they remain as parental
guides, rather than replacing parental judgment, which is what has happened.))

Anyway, all that aside. It's an issue of, Does the RIAA's amoral or immoral
behavior justify infringing them, and in so doing injuring artist who are
genuinely trying to protect their copyrights? I've said it before, I'll say
it again -- Most of RIAA's biggest interests arent art, they're commercial
tripe, and as such, the concept of protecting the artists and the creativity
is bunk. An industry that gav us Samantha Fox, Milli Vanilli, and NSync isn't
really all that interested in the foundations of artistry and creative growth.

I'm not sure if photocopying an entire book from the library *is* entirely
fair use. Legally, it may be (but I thought it wasn't). Morally, I don't feel
it is, unless (and pay attention here, McNally) the work is otherwise
unavailable (hear that, McNally?). Most of the photocopied books that I have
are out-of-print (the rest were made at a time when I just couldn't afford
another $50 academic press book).

Other odds and ends --

Thank you for providing the source. As a lawyer, you demand precise use of
words with precise legal definitions; as an academic, I stress the importance
of actual citation. Not that I always do it myself. ;}

Motive is clearly the word I meant. My mistake, and sorry it caused so much
confusion.

brighn
response 174 of 206: Mark Unseen   Sep 26 03:22 UTC 2000

I know I put the kabosh on linguistic arguments here, at least that I engage
in, but I just had to comment:
From McNally's 171 --
 a grand total of THREE unauthorized copies of works
   which I do not otherwise own, both of which 
  
All right, I'll just clip, and not comment. ;} Heh heh.

Personally, I don't consider making copies of works you legally own copies
of for your own use to be "infringement," regardless of what the law says.

I doodle by drawing pictures out of adult magazines. That's a form of copying,
but I wouldn't sell those doodles. Of my four tattoos, two were taken directly
from books, and another was a composite of several pictures from a book (only
one was completely original)... also forms of copying.

*shrug* I have absolutist moral stances. Unlike most absolutists I've come
across, though, I don't believe it's possible to go through five minutes of
your life without committing an act with some immoral component, and that's
just the way it is. You do your best, that's it.

If you're like most people, McNally, you're responding to my use of "immoral"
as if it has the same judgmental scope that people wh bandy it about use.
*shrug* Don't. I've made it clear enough what I mean, broad strokes and all.
rcurl
response 175 of 206: Mark Unseen   Sep 26 05:31 UTC 2000

Somewhere back there it was claimed that borrowing a boat without the
owners permission but returning it is not larceny, however the definition
of larceny included the phrase "...with intent to appropriate it to use
inconsistent with the latter's rights'. The owner's rights include access
to the boat at any time the owner wishes. Hence borrowing and returning is
larceny if not specifically permitted by the owner.

brighn
response 176 of 206: Mark Unseen   Sep 26 14:07 UTC 2000

Since the boat was mentioned again... I should also point out that the
appropriation of the boat probably also involved trespass (unless the boat
happened to be tethered in a public waterway, and it was just clear from the
boat itself who the owner was). Not that that's relevant to anything other
than another good reason not to take the boat. =}
polygon
response 177 of 206: Mark Unseen   Sep 26 19:43 UTC 2000

Re 175.  You could make a case for that.  But if the hypothetical rowboat
were returned undamaged, and you didn't notice its absence, my guess is
that you would have a hard time convincing the police to take it
seriously.

Real life would add all kinds of wrinkles to this, of course.  Most
likely the item would suffer wear and tear, and even a brief
unauthorized absence could create severe inconvenience or even loss.
What if you needed the rowboat to save someone else's life?  Or,
someone borrowed your fire extinguisher just before you had a fire?
Returning the fire extinguisher in perfect condition would not make
up for its absence at the crucial moment of need.
brighn
response 178 of 206: Mark Unseen   Sep 26 19:46 UTC 2000

Ok, so I borrow the boat with full intention of returning it when I'm done,
save the drowning child (hooray!), but the boat gets away from me (so sad)
and gets lost in the wilds of the Rouge River.

What am I charged with, most likely?

(For the sake of the scenario, I found the boat tethered in a public place
with a placard that says, "This is John Smith's boat. Don't touch it!")
rcurl
response 179 of 206: Mark Unseen   Sep 26 20:04 UTC 2000

You would probably not be charged with anything, though it would be
right for someone to buy a new boat for the owner. Coommitting larceny
and being charged with it are two different things.
brighn
response 180 of 206: Mark Unseen   Sep 26 20:38 UTC 2000

The question was more along the lines of:
If the owner of the boat wanted to press charges, what charges could he press
without causing the PD and the judges to fall over laughing?

Not that it matters, I'm just nosey. =} I imagine this would fall under
something like destruction of property or recklessness?
tpryan
response 181 of 206: Mark Unseen   Sep 26 22:11 UTC 2000

        You three enjoying your item?
brighn
response 182 of 206: Mark Unseen   Sep 26 22:21 UTC 2000

I am, now that we're playing nice. =}
gull
response 183 of 206: Mark Unseen   Sep 26 22:34 UTC 2000

Re #176: And how does the Riparian right to 'use of the entire surface' of a
navigable body of water come into play?  It might depend on whether you own
some shoreline property yourself. ;>

----

I think, unfortunately, that our "fair use" rights are going to start
disappearing.  I base this on the fact that even if it's legally impossible
to remove them, it's technically possible.  Examples:

- Digital audio encryption.  The distribution schemes I've seen would tie a
song to a player.  You'd need to buy one copy for your home stereo, one for
your portable, one for your car...  Yeah, you could break the encryption and
copy the song, but the DMCA says that kind of lock-picking is illegal
regardless of what you do with the results.

- With digital cable boxes, it would now be trivial to add a Macrovision
circuit like the one in DVD players.  If a cable channel is running, say, a
movie, they command the box to turn on the Macrovision, and no one can tape
a copy of it to watch later.  Turn it on all the time, and the Home
Recording Act becomes essentially irrelevent.  Build a device to defeat the
Macrovision encoding (which isn't hard) and you're probably running afoul of
the DMCA again.
scott
response 184 of 206: Mark Unseen   Sep 26 23:12 UTC 2000

(scott keeps hoping for another big DIY punk movement to bypass all of that)
polygon
response 185 of 206: Mark Unseen   Sep 27 05:34 UTC 2000

Re 178,180.  If I was representing the boat owner, I would probably at
least consider advising him to bring a civil suit against you for taking
without permission -- and then carelessly losing -- his boat.  I'm
guessing that such a suit would have a high chance of success. 

Whether a judgement for the value of the boat could be realistically
collected from the defendant is another matter.  The boat owner's lawyer
might ask to be paid up front.  :-)

By contrast, criminal charges for larceny would be problematic from
several standpoints.  If the defendant really saved a drowning child, the
prosecutor and police are going to be wary of the political repercussions
of prosecuting him.  If the defendant's intent was consistently to save
the child and return the boat, it's probably not larceny.  Even if the
case went to trial, it's hard to imagine a jury convicting him.  If the
charges weren't actually dismissed, the prosecutor might accept a guilty
plea to something like "reckless boating," and a nominal fine.  Net gain
for the boat owner: nothing.
albaugh
response 186 of 206: Mark Unseen   Sep 27 05:59 UTC 2000

Out of curiosity, why is photocopying of an entire book considered "fair use"?
What's fair the the copyright holder of the book?  Instead of paying him for
an additional copy, you either got off scot free, or paid money for use of
the copy machine, which undoubtedly wasn't the copyright holder's machine.
brighn
response 187 of 206: Mark Unseen   Sep 27 13:52 UTC 2000

My attitude as well. The only times I could see copying an entire book  as
fair (morally if not legally) would be:
(a) It's your book
(b) It's public domain
(c) It's out of print and not attainable (new)
(d) It's your copy of a book, and your reason for copying it is to preserve
the original while you make notes, etc.

Going to the library and copying an entire Stephen King novel, front to back,
is as immoral (and should be as illegal) as dubbing an entire CD you borrow
from a friend (that latter of which is apparently technically illegal, but
immune from prosecution, according to posts placed here earlier).

Not the "as immoral" in the context of my earlier posts. =} Definitely a
"shame on you, naughty boy" level of offence, not a "burn in hell you impudent
creature of evil" level of offense.
polygon
response 188 of 206: Mark Unseen   Sep 27 18:31 UTC 2000

The boundaries of "fair use" have never been strictly defined in the law. 
There are four factors, including the effect of the copying on the market
for the book (hardly relevant when the book is out of print).  Naturally
most of the discussion and litigation have been on activities that make
and distribute multiple copies of copyrighted material.

However, to quote from a document prepared for the University of
Pennsylvania by its Office of General Counsel, quoted in the university
Handbook: 

   "The making of a single copy of copyrighted material for a teacher's
   personal use in teaching, scholarship, or research will almost always
   be a fair use."
polygon
response 189 of 206: Mark Unseen   Sep 27 18:38 UTC 2000

This response has been erased.

polygon
response 190 of 206: Mark Unseen   Sep 27 18:39 UTC 2000

To rephrase that: thinking of books which I have *copied* in their
entirety, I can't think of a single one which is currently in print.
And many of them are public domain.
albaugh
response 191 of 206: Mark Unseen   Sep 27 19:41 UTC 2000

If the book isn't in print, and there's no way to contact the copyright holder
to provide you a copy of your own for a price, then OK, that seems reasonable
that you should be able to make your own copy, if borrowing the library's copy
doesn't work.  But if the book *is* in print, if it's supposedly fair use to
make one's personal copy via reproduction, why doesn't the instructor just
tell the students to each go and make their own personal copies?  That just
couldn't be right, as the copyright holder would be shorted compensation many
times over.  (Of course, it's not a practical reality, as, at 10 cents a page,
the cost and aggravation of making a photocopy of an entire book is not likely
to be practical.)
rcurl
response 192 of 206: Mark Unseen   Sep 27 19:55 UTC 2000

Because there may only be one copy of the book in the library. 

I used a large part of an out-of-print book as one text in a class at UM. 
It is impractical for 25 students to coordinate borrowing the book and
making copies, so we did it for them. However I first got permission from
the publisher, which they granted. 

albaugh
response 193 of 206: Mark Unseen   Sep 27 20:11 UTC 2000

Yes, as I said, OK if out of print.  But I was referring to *in print*.
polygon
response 194 of 206: Mark Unseen   Sep 27 20:16 UTC 2000

Creating multiple copies either directly or indirectly is not the same
as making a single personal copy, regardless of the other circumstances.

That Pennsylvania text I quoted goes on immediately -- in the next
sentence -- to warn that making multiple copies for students can be
problematic.

I suppose if I copied a Stephen King novel to read at the beach, that
might be seen differently than making copies in the course of research,
which is what I do.
brighn
response 195 of 206: Mark Unseen   Sep 27 20:19 UTC 2000

You also hit the nail on the head there, btw.

Why copy a 200-page book which costs $25, when the copy would cost $10 (100
copies at 10c), in order to get a much worse copy?

that's why, in grad school, I only copied the academic books, which run much
more than $25... academic press runs can cost anywhere from $40 into the
hundreds (of course, part of that is because of the limited market, which is
further restricted by people making copies... hence the vicious cycle).
polygon
response 196 of 206: Mark Unseen   Sep 27 20:23 UTC 2000

Copies at the U-M library are 7 cents with a copy card.  Finding a
specific book that was published 50 years ago is difficult and expensive.
And I can mark up the copy.
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